1. Which of the following is true
a.
Testing is the same as quality assurance
b.
Testing is a part of quality assurance
c.
Testing is not a part of quality assurance
d.
Testing is same as debugging
2.
Why is testing necessary?
a.
Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software
b.
Because verification and validation are into enough to get to know the quality
of the
Software
c.
Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to
increase
The quality
d.
Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.
3. Integration testing has
following characteristics
I.
It can be done in incremental manner
II.
It is always done after system testing
III.
It includes functional tests
IV.
It includes non-functional tests
a.
I, II and III are correct
b. I
is correct
c.
I, III and IV are correct
d.
I, II and IV are correct
4. A number of critical bugs are
fixed in software. All the bugs are in one module,
Related to reports. The
test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.
a.
The test manager should do only automated regression testing.
b.
The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in
other
modules
c.
The test manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do
Regression
testing
d.
Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one
module
may affect other modules
5. Which of the following is
correct about static analysis tools?
a.
Static analysis tools are used only by developers
b.
Compilers may offer some support for static analysis
c.
Static analysis tools help find failures rather than defects
d.
Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage
6. In a flight reservation
system, the number of available seats in each plane
model is an input.
A plane may have any positive
number of available seats, up to the given capacity
of the plane.Using Boundary Value
analysis, a list of available – seat values were generated.
Which of the following lists is
correct?
a.
1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1
b.
0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1
c.
0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number
d.
0, 1, 10, 100, capacity, capacity plus one
7. For the code fragment given
below, which answer correctly represents
minimum tests required for
statement and branch coverage respectively?
Discount rate=1;
Fare = 1000;
If ((person == “senior citizen”) and (“travel month = January”))
Bonuspoints = 100+Bonuspoints
If (class==”first”)
discountRate = .5;
Fare = fare * discountRate;
a.
Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 2
b.
Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 2
c.
Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 3
d.
Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 4
8. Which of the following is
correct about static analysis tools
a.
They help you find defects rather than failures
b.
They are used by developers only
c.
They require compilation of code
d.
They are useful only for regulated industries
9. Acme Inc. decides to use
functional test execution automation tool for testing
GUI of their product. The GUI is
expected to change frequently. Acme Inc. has put some of the manual testers
through a 3 day training program on how to use the tool. Which of the following
is likely to be true?
a.
Automation is likely to fail because of frequent changes and lack of experience
b.
Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to
automate
c.
Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent
changes
d.
Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool.
10. In foundation level syllabus
you will find the main basic principles of testing.
Which of the following sentences
describes one of these basic principles?
a.
Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and
test
tools
b.
With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the
quality
of a product than with manual testing
c.
For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all
input and
output
combinations.
d. A
goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free.
11. Which of the following
statements contains a valid goal for a functional test
set?
a. A
goal is that no more failures will result from the remaining defects
b. A
goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures
can be
identified
and fixed
c. A
goal is to eliminate as much as possible the causes of defects
d. A
goal is to fulfil all requirements for testing that are defined in the project
plan.
12. In system testing...
a.
.. Both functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested
b.
..Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are
validated
in a
review
c.
... Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are
validated
in a
review
d.
... Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be
tested
13. Which of the following activities
differentiate a walkthrough from a formal
review?
a. A
walkthrough does not follow a defined process
b.
For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional
c. A
walkthrough requires meeting
d. A
walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the
failures
14. Why does the boundary value
analysis provide good test cases?
a.
Because it is an industry standard
b.
Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases
near
the ‘edges’
of the range of values
c.
Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view
are
considered
in the test cases
d.
Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance
limits
15. Which of the following list contains
only non-functional tests?
a.
Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance
testing
b.
System testing, performance testing
c.
Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing
d.
Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing
16. The following list contains
risks that have been identified for a software product to
be developed. Which of these
risks is an example of a product risk?
a.
Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests
b.
Software delivery is behind schedule
c.
Threat to a patient’s life
d.
3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated
17. Which set of metrics can be
used for monitoring of the test execution?
a.
Number of detected defects, testing cost;
b.
Number of residual defects in the test object.
c.
Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test
cases
prepared
d.
Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed
18. Which of the following
statements is correct?
a.
Static analysis tools produce statistics during program execution
b.
Configuration management systems allow us to provide accurate defect statistics
of
different
configurations
c.
Stress testing tools examine the behaviour of the test object at or beyond full
load
d.
Performance measurement tools can be used in all phases of software life-cycle
19. What makes an inspection
different from other review types?
a.
It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and
checklists
b.
It is led by the author of the document to be inspected
c.
It can only be used for reviewing design and code
d.
It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement
20. Which of the following is a
valid collection of equivalence classes for the
following problem: An integer
field shall contain values from and including 1 to and
including 15
a.
Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
b.
Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
c.
Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15
d.
Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more
21. Which of the following is a
valid collection of equivalence classes for the
following roblem: Paying with
credit cards shall be possible with Visa, Master and Amex
cards only.
a.
Visa, Master, Amex;
b.
Visa, Master, Amex, Diners, Keycards, and other option
c.
Visa, Master, Amex, any other card, no card
d.
No card, other cards, any of Visa – Master – Amex
22. Which of the following
techniques are black box techniques?
a.
State transition testing, code testing, agile testing
b.
Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing
c.
System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning
d.
System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing
23. A defect management system
shall keep track of the status of every defect
registered and enforce the rules
about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which
method would be best?
a.
Logic-based testing
b.
Use-case-based testing
c.
State transition testing
d.
Systematic testing according to the V-model
24. If a program is tested and
100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the
following coverage criteria is
then guaranteed to be achieved?
a.
100% branch coverage
b.
100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage
c. Equivalence
class and boundary value coverage
d.
No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%
25. This part of a program is
given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to
achieve 100%
decision coverage?
a. 2
b.
Indefinite
c. 1
d. 4
26. Why can be tester dependent
on configuration management?
a.
Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the
testware
and the test object
b.
Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the
change
control
board
c.
Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration
management
d.
Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test
tools
27. What test items should be put
under configuration management?
a.
The test object, the test material and the test environment
b.
The problem reports and the test material
c.
Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
d.
The test object and the test material
28. Why is successful test
execution automation difficult?
a.
Because the tools for automated testing require too much effort for learning
b.
Because the maintenance of the test system is difficult
c.
Because the test robot tools are restricted in their ability to recognize
outputs
d.
Because the test robot needs to be supported by a test management.
29. Which of the following can be
root cause of a bug in a software product?
(I)
The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II)
The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III)
the specification was unclear
(IV)
Use of the code standard was not followed up
(V)
The testers were not certified
a.
(I) and (II) are correct
b.
(I) through (IV) are correct
c.
(III) through (V) are correct
d.
(I), (II) and (IV) are correct
30. Which of the following is
most often considered as components interface
bug?
a.
For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other
one
used
British units
b.
The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input
structure
c.
The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for
understanding
the
input
error cause
d.
Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to
31. Which of the following
project inputs influence testing?
(I) contractual requirements
(II) legal requirements
(III) Industry standards
(IV) application risk
(V) project size
a.
(I) through (III) are correct
b.
All alternatives are correct
c.
(II) and (V) are correct
d.
(I), (III) and (V) are correct
32. If a program is tested and
100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the
following coverage criteria is
then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% Equivalence class coverage
b. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage
c. 100% Statement coverage
d. 100% Multiple condition coverage
33. This part of a program is
given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve
100% path
coverage?
a.
One
b.
Indefinite
c.
Two
d.
Four
34. What is the purpose of test
exit criteria in the test plan?
a.
To specify when to stop the testing activity
b.
To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
c.
To ensure that the test case specification is complete
d.
To know when a specific test has finished its execution
35. Which of the following items
need not to be given in an incident report?
a.
The version number of the test object
b.
Test data and used environment
c.
Identification of the test case that failed
d.
The location and instructions on how to correct the fault
36. V-Model is:
a. A
software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate
with
software
development phases
b. A
software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing
c.
The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB
d. A
testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance
phases
37. Why is incremental
integration preferred over “big bang” integration?
a.
Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and
isolation
ability
b.
Because “big bang” integration is suitable only for real time applications
c.
Incremental integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for
“bottom up”
development
model
d.
Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate
component
testing
38. Maintenance testing is:
a.
Testing management
b.
Synonym of testing the quality of service
c.
Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software
d.
Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor
39. A test engineer is testing a
Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:
Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time
Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape
Severity: High
Priority: Urgent
What important information did the engineer leave out?
a.
Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR
b.
Actual result
c.
History of the report
d.
Ideas for the test case improvement
40. Why is it necessary to define
a Test Strategy?
a.
As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to
decide
what
will
be the most effective way to test the project on hand.
b.
Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test
project
c. A
strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will
schedule
the
test-cycles
d.
Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme
cases
injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in
place.
Answers:
1 -
B
2 -
C
3 -
C
4 -
D
5 -
B
6 -
B
7 -
A
8 -
A
9 -
A
10 -
C
11 -
B
12 -
A
13 -
B
14 -
B
15 -
C
16 -
C
17 -
D
18 -
C
19 -
A
20 -
A
21 -
D
22 -
B
23 -
C
24 -
B
25 -
A
26 -
A
27 -
A
28 -
B
29 -
B
30 -
A
31 -
B
32 -
B
33 -
C
34 -
A
35 -
D
36 -
A
37 -
A
38 -
C
39 -
B
40 - D
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