1. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
A
Determining the test approach.
B
Preparing test specifications.
C
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
D
Measuring and analyzing results.
2. Which of the following
statements is MOST OFTEN true?
A
Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B
Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately
testable.
C
Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
D
Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software
and
hardware
components.
3. In a system designed to work
out the tax to be paid:
An
employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The
next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The
next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any
further amount is taxed at 40%.
To
the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three
DIFFERENT
Equivalence
classes?
A
£4000; £5000; £5500.
B
£32001; £34000; £36500.
C
£28000; £28001; £32001.
D
£4000; £4200; £5600.
4. Which of the following will
NOT be detected by static analysis?
A
Parameter type mismatches.
B
Errors in requirements.
C
Undeclared variables.
D
Uncalled functions.
5. Which of the following test
activities can be automated?
i
Reviews and inspections.
ii
Metrics gathering.
iii
Test planning.
iv
Test execution.
v
Data generation.
A i,
iii, iv.
B i,
ii, iii.
C
ii, iv, v.
D
ii, iii, v.
6. Which of the following is an objective of a
pilot project for the introduction of a
testing tool?
A
Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool.
B
Complete the testing of a key project.
C
Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
D
Discover what the requirements for the tool are.
7. What is the MAIN purpose of a
Master Test Plan?
A To
communicate how incidents will be managed.
B To
communicate how testing will be performed.
C To
produce a test schedule.
D To
produce a work breakdown structure.
8. In a REACTIVE approach to
testing when would you expect the bulk of the test
design work to be begun?
A
After the software or system has been produced.
B
During development.
C As
early as possible.
D
During requirements analysis.
9. What is the objective of
debugging?
i To
localise a defect.
ii
To fix a defect.
iii
To show value.
iv
To increase the range of testing.
A i,
iii.
B
ii, iii, iv.
C
ii, iv.
D i,
ii.
10. Given the following decision
table
Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4
Conditions
UK resident? False True True True
Age between 18 - 55? Don’t care False True True
Smoker? Don’t care Don’t care False True
Actions
Insure client? False False True True
Offer 10% discount? False False True False
What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A.TC1:
Fred is a 32 year old smoker resident in London
B.TC3:
Jean-Michel is a 65 year non-smoker resident in Paris
A A
– Insure, 10% discount, B – Insure, no discount.
B A
– Don’t insure, B – Don’t insure.
C A
– Insure, no discount, B – Don’t insure.
D A
– Insure, no discount, B – Insure with 10% discount.
11. Which of the following are
valid objectives for testing?
i.To find defects.
ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality.
iii.To identify the cause of defects.
iv.To prevent defects.
A
i,ii, and iii.
B
ii, iii and iv.
C i,
ii and iv.
D
i,iii and iv.
12.The process of designing test
cases consists of the following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test
design techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test
conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what
is the correct
order of these
activities?
A
iii, i, iv, ii.
B
iii, iv, i, ii.
C
iii, ii, i, iv.
D
ii, iii, i, iv.
13. What is the main purpose of
impact analysis for testers?
A To
determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
B To
determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
C To
determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
D To
determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
14. Which of the following
requirements would be tested by a functional system
test?
A The system must be able to perform
its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins
per day.
B
The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C
The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
D
The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.
15.In a system designed to work
out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary
Value Analysis
test case?
A
£28000.
B
£33501.
C
£32001.
D
£1500.
16.Which of the following defines
the sequence in which tests should be
executed?
A
Test plan.
B
Test procedure specification.
C
Test case specification.
D
Test design specification.
17. Given the following state
transition
Which of the following series of
state transitions below will provide 0-switch
coverage?
A A,
B, E, B, C, F, D.
B A,
B, E, B, C, F, F.
C A,
B, E, B, C, D.
D A,
B, C, F, F, D.
18. Given the following decision
table
Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule
4
Conditions
Frequent Flyer Member Yes Yes No No
Class Business Economy Business
Economy
Actions
Offer upgrade to First Yes No No No
Offer upgrade to Business N/A Yes N/A No
What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A.
Frequent flyer member, travelling in Business class
B.
Non-member, travelling in Economy class
A A
– Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
B A
– Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.
C A
– Offer upgrade to First, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
D A
– Offer upgrade to First, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.
19. During which fundamental test
process activity do we determine if MORE
tests are needed?
A
Test implementation and execution.
B
Evaluating test exit criteria.
C
Test analysis and design.
D
Test planning and control.
20. What is the difference
between a project risk and a product risk?
A
Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product
risks are
risks
that
surround the
project’s
capability to deliver its objectives.
B
Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver
its
objectives;
product
risks are
potential
failure areas in the software or system.
C
Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors
and
technical
issues;
product risks
are
typically related to skill and staff shortages.
D
Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks
are typically
related
to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.
21. Given the following
specification, which of the following values for age are in
the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured.
Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.
Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
A
17, 18, 19.
B
29, 30, 31.
C
18, 29, 30.
D
17, 29, 31.
22. Considering the following pseudo-code,
calculate the MINIMUM number of
test cases for statement
coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test cases for decision
coverage respectively.
READ A
READ B
READ C
IF C>A THEN
IF C>B THEN
PRINT "C must be smaller than at least one number"
ELSE
PRINT "Proceed to next stage"
ENDIF
ELSE
PRINT "B can be smaller than C"
ENDIF
A 3,
3.
B 2,
3.
C 2,
4.
D 3,
2.
23. Which of the following is a benefit of
independent testing?
A
Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B
Testing is isolated from development.
C
Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
D
Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.
24. Which of the following tools
is most likely to contain a comparator?
A
Dynamic Analysis tool.
B
Test Execution tool.
C
Static Analysis tool.
D
Security tool.
25. Given the following State
Table:
A B C D E F
SS S1
S1 S2
S2 S3 S1
S3 ES S3
ES
Which of the following represents an INVALID state transition?
A E
from State S2.
B E
from State S3.
C B
from State S1.
D F
from State S3.
26. Which of the following is a
characteristic of good testing in any life cycle
model?
A All document reviews involve the development team.
B
Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
C
Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D
Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.
27. Which activity in the
fundamental test process includes evaluation of the
testability of the requirements
and system?
A
Test analysis and design.
B
Test planning and control.
C
Test closure.
D
Test implementation and execution.
28. The following statements are
used to describe the basis for creating test
cases using either black or white
box techniques:
i information about how the software is constructed.
ii models of the system, software or components.
iii analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv analysis of the internal structure of the components.
Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black
box
techniques?
A ii
and iii.
B ii
and iv.
C i
and iv.
D i
and iii.
29. What is typically the MOST
important reason to use risk to drive testing
efforts?
A
Because testing everything is not feasible.
B
Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
C
Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value.
D
Because software is inherently risky.
30. Which of the following defines the scope of
maintenance testing?
A
The coverage of the current regression pack.
B
The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
C
The time since the last change was made to the system.
D
Defects found at the last regression test run.
31. Which is the MOST important advantage of
independence in testing?
A An
independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the
software.
B An
independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than
the
person
who wrote
the
software.
C An
independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less
familiar
with
the software
than
the person who wrote it.
D An
independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the
person
who
wrote
the software.
32. For testing, which of the options below
best represents the main concerns of
Configuration Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to
development items.A i, iv,
vi.
B
ii, iii, v.
C i,
iii, iv.
D
iv, v, vi.
33. Which of the following would be a valid
measure of test progress?
A
Number of undetected defects.
B
Total number of defects in the product.
C Number
of test cases not yet executed.
D
Effort required to fix all defects.
34. Which of following statements
is true? Select ALL correct options
Regression testing should be
performed:
i once a month
ii when a defect has been fixed
iii when the test environment has changed
iv when the software has changedA ii
and iv.
B
ii, iii and iv.
C i,
ii and iii.
D i
and iii.
35. In which of the following orders would the
phases of a formal review usually
occur?
A
Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B
Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C
Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D
Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
36. Which of the following are valid objectives
for incident reports?
i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the
problem to
enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the
system under test.
A i,
ii, iii.
B i,
ii, iv.
C i,
iii, iv.
D
ii, iii, iv.
37. Consider the following
techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic
techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.A i-iv are
static, v-vi are dynamic.
B
iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C
ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D vi
is static, i-v are dynamic.
38. Why are static testing and dynamic testing
described as complementary?
A
Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of
defect.
B
Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
C
Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
D
Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of
defect they
find.
39. Which of the following are disadvantages of
capturing tests by recording the
actions of a manual tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored
separately from the
script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the
tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the
script if it
doesn’t play
correctly.A i, iii, iv, v.
B
ii, iv and v.
C i,
ii and iv.
D i
and v.
40. Which of the following is determined by the
level of product risk identified?
A
Extent of testing.
B
Scope for the use of test automation.
C
Size of the test team.
D
Requirement for regression testing.
Answers
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. D
10.
C
11.
C
12.
A
13.
D
14.
C
15.
B
16.
B
17.
A
18.
C
19.
B
20.
B
21.
C
22.
A
23.
D
24.
B
25.
B
26.
C
27.
A
28.
A
29.
A
30.
B
31.
D
32.
A
33.
C
34.
B
35.
D
36.
B
37.
B
38.
D
39.
A
40. A
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