Q. 1: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will
cover the following series of
state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO
A.
D, A, B, C.
B.
A, B, C, D.
C.
D, A, B.
D.
A, B, C.
Q. 2: From a Testing perspective,
what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration
Management?:
i) Identifying the version of software under test. ii) Controlling
the version of
testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testware items.
v) Analysing the need for new testware items.
A.
ii, iv and v.
B.
ii, iii and iv.i,
C.
i, ii and iv.
D.
i, iii and v.
Q. 3: Which of the following is a
MAJOR task of test planning?
A.
Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
B.
Initiating corrective actions.
C.
Monitoring progress and test coverage.
D.
Measuring and analyzing results.
Q. 4: Which of the following BEST
describes the difference between an inspection
and a walkthrough?
A.
Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.
B.
An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.
C.
Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.
D. A
walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during inspections.
Q. 5: Where may functional testing
be performed?
A.
At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B.
At all test levels.
C.
At all levels above integration testing.
D.
At the acceptance testing level only.
Q. 6: What is the MAIN objective
when reviewing a software deliverable?
A.
To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification.
B.
To identify defects in any software work product.
C.
To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification.
D.
To identify standards inconsistencies in the code.
Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform
debugging activities?
A.Developers.
B.
Analysts.
C.
Testers.
D.
Incident Managers.
Q. 8: Which of the following
would you NOT usually find on a software incident
report?
A.
The name and/or organisational position of the person raising the problem.
B.
Version of the Software Under Test.
C.
Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.
D.
Actual and expected results.
Q. 9: Which of the following
defines the expected results of a test?
A.
Test case specification.
B.
Test design specification.
C.
Test procedure specification.
D.
Test results.
Q. 10: Some tools are geared more
for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which
statement BEST details those for
developers
i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.
A.
i, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
B.
ii. and iv. are more for developers.
C.
ii, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
D.
ii. and iii. are more for developers.
Q. 11: Which of the following is
correct?
A.
Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in
regression
Testing.
B.
Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test
team.
C.
Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing
has
been
fixed correctly.
D.
Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how
much
regression testing to do.
Q. 12: As part of which test
process do you determine the exit criteria?
A.
Test planning.
B.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C.
Test closure.
D.
Test control.
Q. 13: Given the following state
transition diagram Which of the following series
of state transitions contains an
INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in
the system design?
Exhibit:
A.
Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
B.
Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
C.
Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.
D.
Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
Q. 14: Which of the following is
a MAJOR task of test implementation and
execution?
A.
Measuring and analyzing results.
B.
Reporting discrepancies as incidents.
C.
Identifying test conditions or test requirements.
D.
Assessing if more tests are needed.
Q. 15: What is beta testing?
A.
Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.
B.
Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.
C.
Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location.
D. Testing
performed by product developers at their own locations.
Q. 16: Given the following
fragment of code, how many tests are required for
100% decision coverage?
if
width > length then
biggest_dimension
= width
if
height > width then
biggest_dimension
= height end_if
else
biggest_dimension
= length if height > length
then
biggest_dimension
= height end_if
end_if
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Q. 17: You have designed test
cases to provide 100% statement and 100%
decision coverage for the
following fragment of code.
if width > length then
biggest_dimension = width else
biggest_dimension = length end_if
The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment
above.
print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension
print "Width: " & width
print "Length: " & length
How many more test cases are required?
A.
One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage.
B.
Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which
will
be
used to provide 100% decision coverage.
C.
None, existing test cases can be used.
D.
One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.
Q. 18: A thermometer measures
temperature in whole degrees only. If the
temperature falls below 18
degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on
again when the temperature
reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in
degrees to cover all equivalence
partitions?
A.
15, 19 and 25.
B.
17, 18 and19.
C.
18, 20 and22.
D.
16, 26 and 32.
Q. 19: Which activity in the
fundamental test process creates test suites for
efficient test execution?
A.
Implementation and execution.
B.
Planning and control.
C.
Analysis and design.
D.
Test closure.
Q. 20: Which of the following is
TRUE?
A.
Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression
testing is
testing
to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
B.
Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been
introduced
as a
result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects.
C.
Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish
whether any
defects
have been introduced as a result of changes.
D.
Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of
defects.
Q. 21: Given the following
decision table: Which of the following test cases and
expected results is VALID?
A.
23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 0 and excess is,500.
B.
51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is 00.
C.
31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 0 and excess is ,500.
D.
43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is ,000.
Q. 22: When should configuration
management procedures be implemented?
A.
During test planning.
B.
During test analysis.
C.
During test execution.
D.
When evaluating exit criteria
Q. 23: Which of the following are
characteristic of regression testing ?
i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained
Options:
A.
ii, iv.
B.
ii, iii.
C.
i, iii, iv.
D.
iii.
Q. 24: A wholesaler sells printer
cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5.
There is a 20% discount for
orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have
been asked to prepare test cases
using various values for the number of printer
cartridges ordered. Which of the
following groups contain three test inputs that
would be generated using Boundary
Value Analysis?
A.
5, 6, 20
B.
4, 5, 80
C.
4, 5, 99
D.
1, 20, 100
Q. 25: Which of the following
activities should be performed during the selection
and implementation of a testing
tool?
i) Investigate the organisation's test process. ii) Conduct a
proof of concept.
iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to
save time.
iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of
the selected tool.
Options:
A.
i, ii, iii.
B.
ii, iii, iv.
C.
i, iii, iv.
D.
i, ii, iv.
Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit
of designing tests early in the life cycle?
A.
It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.
B.
It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.
C.
Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later.
D.
It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.
Q. 27: Which of the following
benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using
test tools?
i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.
Options:
A.
ii and iv
B.
ii and iii
C. i
and iv
D. i
and iii
Q. 28: What is the KEY difference
between preventative and reactive approaches to testing?
A.
Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.
B.
Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the
software
has
been produced.
C.
Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always
heuristic.
D.
Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced; reactive
tests
are
designed early in response to review comments.
Q. 29: What is the purpose of
exit criteria?
A.
To define when a test level is complete.
B.
To determine when a test has completed.
C.
To identify when a software system should be retired.
D.
To determine whether a test has passed.
Q. 30: What determines the level
of risk?
A.
The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.
B.
The probability that an adverse event will occur.
C.
The amount of testing planned before release of a system.
D.
The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.
Q. 31: With which of the
following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY
associated?
A.
Tool support for performance and monitoring.
B.
Tool support for static testing.
C.
Tool support for test execution and logging.
D.
Tool support for the management of testing and tests.
Q. 32: Which activities form part
of test planning?
i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.
A.
i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.
B.
ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
C.
iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
D. i,
ii & iii are true iv & v are false.
Q. 33: Match the following terms
and statements.
1.Decision Table Testing
2.Decision Testing
3.State Transition Testing
4.Exploratory Testing
W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test
objectives, possibly to
complement structured testing.
X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different
system re
depending on current conditions or previous history.
Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that
might not
otherwise have
been exercised during testing.
Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.
Options:
A.
1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
B.
1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
C.
1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
D.
1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.
Q. 34: Which type of test design
techniques does the following statement best
describe a procedure to derive
test cases based on the specification of a
component?
A.
Black Box Techniques.
B.
White Box Techniques.
C.
Glass Box Techniques.
D.
Experience Based Techniques.
Q. 35: For which of the following
would a static analysis tool be MOST useful?
A.
Supporting reviews.
B.
Validating models of the software.
C.
Testing code executed in a special test harness.
D.
Enforcement of coding standards.
Q. 36: Which of the following
types of defects is use case testing MOST LIKELY
to uncover?
i)
Defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system.
ii)
Defects in the interface parameters in integration testing.
iii)
Integration defects caused by the interaction and interference of different
components.
iv)
Defects in the system as it transitions between one state and another.
A.
ii, iii.
B.
i, iii.
C.
iii, iv.
D.
i, ii
Q. 37: Which of the following is
MOST important in the selection of a test
approach?
A.
Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.
B.
The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.
C.
Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
D.
The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.
Q. 38: Which of the following is
a benefit of test independence?
A.
It does not require familiarity with the code.
B.
It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.
C.
It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
D.
Testers are better at finding defects than developers.
Q. 39: The above diagram
represents the following paths through the code.
A. vwy
B. vwz
C. vxy
D. vxz
What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full
statement
coverage?
Exhibit:
A. A
B.
ABD
C.
ABCD
D.
ACD
Q. 40: Which of the following is
MOST characteristic of specification based
(black-box) techniques?
A.
Test cases can be easily automated.
B.
Test cases are independent of each other.
C.
Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system.
D.
Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.
Answers:
Q. 1-A
Q.
2-C
Q.
3-A
Q.
4-B
Q.
5-B
Q.
6-B
Q.
7-A
Q.
8-C
Q.
9-A
Q.
10-B
Q.
11-D
Q.
12-A
Q.
13-C
Q.
14-B
Q.
15-B
Q.
16-B
Q.
17-C
Q.
18-A
Q.
19-A
Q.
20-A
Q.
21-A
Q.
22-A
Q.
23-B
Q.
24-C
Q.
25-D
Q.
26-B
Q.
27-C
Q.
28-B
Q.
29-A
Q.
30-D
Q.
31-C
Q.
32-B
Q.
33-A
Q. 34-A
Q.
35-D
Q.
36-B
Q.
37-C
Q.
38-C
Q.
39-A
Q. 40-C
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