ISTQB Question Paper -2
1) When what is visible to end-users is
a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is
called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake
2) Regression testing should be
performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are
false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are
false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true
3) IEEE 829 test plan documentation
standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
4) Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the
system being tested
5) Order numbers on a stock control
system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive.
Which of the following inputs might be
a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence
classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
6) Consider the following statements
about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault
multiplication
ii. faults found during early test
design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes
to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effor
a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v
are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are
false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v
are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us
false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v
are false
7) Non-functional system testing
includes:
a) testing to see where the system does
not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the
system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only
the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only
the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should
not exist
8) Which of the following is NOT part
of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration
items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation
over time
e) controlled library access
9) Which of the following is the main
purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in
the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small
modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces
to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine
when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration
testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should
be divided into modules
10) What is the purpose of test
completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has
finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case
specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in
generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is
complete
e) to plan when to stop testing
11) Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without
being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against
documentation
iii. the final stage of incident
tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not
include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when
someone other than the author of the software performs the
test
a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are
false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are
false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are
false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are
false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are
false
12) Given the following code, which is
true about the minimum number of test cases required for
full statement and branch covera
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for
branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for
branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for
branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3
for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2
for branch coverage
13) Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for
branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for
branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for
branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2
for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3
for branch coverage
14) Given the following code, which is
true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for
branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2
for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3
for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3
for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2
for branch coverage
15) Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are
interested in watching then switch the the television on and
watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and
complete the crossword
a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3
16) The place to start if you want a
(new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be
for the tool
e) Search the internet
17) When a new testing tool is
purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best
way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have
some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it
should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the
initial scripts
18) What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has
been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a
variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable
before it has been used
e) Array bound violations
19) Which of the following is NOT a
black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis
20) Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own
site
b) Performed by customers at their
software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test
team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in
the lifecycle
21) Given the following types of tool,
which tools would typically be used by developers and
which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation
a) developers would typically use i, iv
and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and
iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i,
ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii,
iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii,
iv and v; test team ii and vi
22) The main focus of acceptance
testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is
acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other
systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team
23) Which of the following statements
about the component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have
an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have
an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test
measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all
have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all
have an associated test design technique
24) Which of the following statements
is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review
process
b) inspections should be led by a
trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on
management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when
there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with
predecessor (source) documents
25) A typical commercial test execution
tool would be able to perform all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a
programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with
actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file
26) The difference between re-testing
and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again;
regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side
effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are
fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different
environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers,
regression testing is done by independent testers
27) Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in
advance
e) derived from the code
28) Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the
project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet
original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they
have found
e) provide information for risk
analysis and quality improvement
29) Unreachable code would best be
found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool
30) A tool that supports traceability,
recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool
31) What information need not be
included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes
32) Which expression best matches the
following characteristics or review processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
33) Which of the following is NOT part
of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing
34) What statement about expected
outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the
software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a
specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to
a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be
predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing
constraints such as response times
35) The standard that gives definitions
of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729
36) The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product
towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product
towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in
requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined
37) Which of the following is NOT
included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation
Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines
38) Could reviews or inspections be
considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to
development documentation
b) No, because they are normally
applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the
test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults
and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all
non-constructive activities
39) Which of the following is not part
of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions
40) Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving
test cases
b) After more formal techniques have
been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users
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B 22 » D 23 » A 24 » D 25 26 » A 27 » D 28 » C 29 » A 30 » 31 » E32 » B 33 » E
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